The board / number theory / #1214
Erdős Problem #1214
PROVEDdatabase updated 2026-04-21
The statement as posed is true, and a proof exists.
What the community database records, not our verdict. erdosproblems.com no longer shows statuses (why).
Let \(x,y\geq 1\) be integers such that, for all \(n\geq 1\), the set of primes dividing \(x^{n}-1\) is equal to the set of primes dividing \(y^n-1\). Must \(x=y\)? Erdős asked this at a 1988 number theory conference in Banff. A positive answer was given by Corrales-Rodrigáñez and Schoof [CoSc97].
Statement as formalized in Formal Conjectures (Google DeepMind, Apache-2.0) · their label: research solved. The authoritative wording is on erdosproblems.com/1214.Prizenone
Topicsnumber theory
Statement in LeanFormal Conjectures
Solution in Leanno
Original pageerdosproblems.com/1214
Attempts
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