The board / number theory / #977
Erdős Problem #977
PROVEDdatabase updated 2025-08-31
The statement as posed is true, and a proof exists.
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If \(P(m)\) is the greatest prime divisor of \(m\), then is it true that \[\frac{P(2^n-1)}{n}\to \infty\] as \(n\to \infty\)? Schinzel [Sc62] proved that \(P(2^n-1)>2n\) for \(n>12\). In [Er65b] Erdős also asks about \(P(n!+1)\). Stewart [St74b] proved that this conjecture is true if we restrict \(n\) to those integers with \(<\frac{1}{\log 2}\log\log n\) many prime factors. This was proved in the affirmative by Stewart [St13], who proved that \(P(2^n-1)\gg n^{1+\frac{1}{104\log\log n}}\) for all large \(n\).
Statement as formalized in Formal Conjectures (Google DeepMind, Apache-2.0) · their label: research solved · 4 further variants / known partial results in the Lean file. The authoritative wording is on erdosproblems.com/977.Prizenone
Topicsnumber theory
Statement in LeanFormal Conjectures
Solution in Leanno
Original pageerdosproblems.com/977
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